MCQs of Pharmacology FCPS Part 1

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The process of drug uptake from the site of administration and transfer into the blood stream is known as
A) Bioavailability
B) Absorption
C) Drug Distribution
D) Volume of Distribution
E) Drug Metabolism
Ans: B.

2: A measure of how much drug reaches the circulatory system and is available at the site of action is known as?
A) Bioavailability
B) Absorption
C) Drug Distribution
D) Volume of Distribution
E) Drug Metabolism
Ans: A.

 

3: The ability of a drug to move from the circulatory system into the interstitium and tissues is known as?
A) Bioavailability
B) Absorption
C) Drug Distribution
D) Volume of Distribution
E) Drug Metabolism
Ans: C

A theoretical amount of fluid the drug is dispersed in after administration is known as?
A) Bioavailability
B) Absorption
C) Drug Distribution
D) Volume of Distribution
E) Drug Metabolism
Ans: D .

5: Sites of pharmacologic administration where absorption is total?
A) Oral
B) IntraMuscular
C) Intra-Venous
D) Transmucosal
E) Transdermal
Ans: C.

6: Sites of pharmacologic administration where absorption is partial?
A) Oral
B) IntraMuscular
C) Transmucosal
D) Transdermal
E) All of the above
Ans: E

Factors influencing the bioavailability of a drug include?
A) Route of administration
B) Degradation of drug prior to absorption
C) Hepatic first pass effect
D) Drug chemistry
E) All of the above
Ans: E.

8: Drugs to be well absorbed should be largely?
A) Lipophilic
B) Lipophobic
C) Hydrophilic
D) Hydrophobic
E)Neutral
Ans: D.



9: Mechanism of Drug absorption in GIT is by?
A) Active Transport
B) Passive absorption
C) Both of the above
D) Absorption does not occur through GIT
E) None of the above
Ans: C.

10: Drug distribution depends upon?
A) Route of administration
B) Degradation of drug prior to absorption
C) Hepatic first pass effect
D) Drug chemistry
E) Protein binding
Ans: E

Phase of Drug metabolism in which drug is converted into often still active slightly polar, water-soluble metabolites through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis reactions is known as?
A) Phase I reactions
B) Phase II reactions
C) Phase III reactions
D) Phase IV reactions
E) Phase V reactions
Ans: A.

12: Phase of Drug metabolism in which metabolites are converted into inactive polar metabolites via acetylation, glucuronidation, or sulfation that are then excreted by the kidneys is known as?
A) Phase I reactions
B) Phase II reactions
C) Phase III reactions
D) Phase IV reactions
E) Phase V reactions
Ans: B.

13: Elimination of drugs in a linear constant fashion regardless of concentration occur in?
A) First-order elimination
B) Second-order elimination
C) Third-order elimination
D) Fourth-order elimination
E) Zero-order elimination .
Ans: E

Elimination of drugs in a proportional fashion to drug concentration occur in?
A) First-order elimination
B) Second-order elimination
C) Third-order elimination
D) Fourth-order elimination
E) Zero-order elimination

Ans: A

15: Which of the following elicits a maximal response by activating all or a portion of the receptors?
A) Partial agonist
B) Agonist
C) Full agonist
D) Competitive antagonists
E) Noncompetitive antagonist

Ans: C

16: Which of the following elicits a less than maximal response even if all the receptors are occupied?
A) Partial agonist
B) Agonist
C) Full agonist
D) Competitive antagonists
E) Noncompetitive antagonist

Ans: A

17: Which of the following compete with agonist for a receptor and can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the agonist?
A) Partial agonist
B) Agonist
C) Full agonist
D) Competitive antagonists
E) Noncompetitive antagonist

Ans: D



18: Which of the following inhibits by causing irreversible changes to receptors?
A) Partial agonist
B) Agonist
C) Full agonist
D) Competitive antagonists
E) Noncompetitive antagonist

Ans: E

19: Which of the following shifts an agonist curve to the right?
A) Partial agonist
B) Agonist
C) Full agonist
D) Competitive antagonists
E) Noncompetitive antagonist

Ans: D

20: Which of the following shifts an agonist curve to the left?
A) Partial agonist
B) Agonist
C) Full agonist
D) Competitive antagonists
E) Noncompetitive antagonist

Ans: E

21: A comparison of the amount of an agent (e.g., drug) that causes a therapeutic effect to the amount of that same agent that causes toxic effects is known as?
A) Bioavailability
B) Absorption
C) Drug Distribution
D) Volume of Distribution
E) Therapeutic Index

Ans: E

22: The need to increase the dose in order to achieve the same effects originally achieved by a lower dose is known as?
A) Therapeutic Index
B) Drug Distribution
C) Volume of Distribution
D) Tolerance
E) Bioavailability

Ans: D

23: Physiologic need for the substance when on cessation will illicit negative physical symptoms is known as?
A) Therapeutic Index
B) Drug Distribution
C) Volume of Distribution
D) Tolerance
E) Physical dependence

Ans: E

24: Use of illicit drugs or prescription or over-the-counter medications for purposes other than they are indicated for or in amounts greater than prescribed is known as?

A) Therapeutic Index
B) Drug abuse
C) Volume of Distribution
D) Tolerance
E) Physical dependence

Ans: B

25: Which of the following drugs acts on β1 more than β2?
A) Epinehrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dobutamine
D) Phenylephrine
E) Methoxamine

Ans: C

26: Which of the following drugs acts on α1, α2, β1, β2 receptors?
A) Epinehrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dobutamine
D) Phenylephrine
E) Methoxamine

Ans: A

27:  Which of the following drugs acts on α1, α2, β1 receptors?
A) Epinehrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dobutamine
D) Phenylephrine
E) Methoxamine

Ans: B

28:  Which of the following drugs acts on α1 more than α2?
A) Epinehrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dobutamine
D) Phenylephrine
E) Clonidine

Ans: D

29: Which of the following drugs Inhibit the reuptake of NE by adrenergic neurons by blocking the Na+/K+ activated ATPase?
A) Reserpine
B) Guanethidine
C) Cocaine
D) Bethanechol
E) Carbachol

Ans: C

30: Which of the following drugs Inhibits response of adrenergic nerves to stimulation by blocking release of NE?A) Reserpine
B) Guanethidine
C) Cocaine
D) Bethanechol
E) Carbachol

Ans: B

31:  Which of the following drugs Blocks Mg++/ATP-dependent transport of norepinephrine (NE), serotonin, and dopamine from the cytoplasm into storage vesicles in the adrenergic nerves?
A) Reserpine
B) Guanethidine
C) Cocaine
D) Bethanechol
E) Carbachol

Ans: A



32: Which of the following drugs facilitate gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor binding by increasing the frequency of chloride channel opening?
A) Buspirone
B) Hydroxyzine
C) Diazepam
D) Phenobarbital
E) Secobarbital

Ans: C

33: Which of the following drugs potentiates GABA receptor binding by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening?
A) Buspirone
B) Hydroxyzine
C) Diazepam
D) Phenobarbital
E) Oxazepam

Ans: D

34: Which of the following drugs appears to be mainly mediated through actions on serotonin receptors?
A) Buspirone
B) Hydroxyzine
C) Diazepam
D) Phenobarbital
E) Oxazepam

Ans: A

35: Which of the following drugs is antihistamine?
A) Buspirone
B) Hydroxyzine
C) Diazepam
D) Phenobarbital
E) Oxazepam

Ans: B

36:  Which of the following drugs Blocks Na channels and increases GABA concentration?
A) Carbamazepine
B) Phenytoin
C) Gabapentin
D) Valproic acid
E) Benzodiazepines

Ans: D

37: Which of the following drugs increases presynaptic GABA release?
A) Carbamazepine
B) Phenytoin
C) Gabapentin
D) Valproic acid
E) Benzodiazepines

Ans: C

38: Which of the following drugs facilitates GABA binding?
A) Carbamazepine
B) Phenytoin
C) Gabapentin
D) Valproic acid
E) Benzodiazepines

Ans: E

39: Which of the following drugs is used for Bipolar disorders?
A) Paroxetine
B) Sertraline
C) Amitriptyline
D) Phenelzine
E) Lithium

Ans: E

40: Which of the following drugs specifically inhibits serotonin reuptake?
A) Amitriptyline
B) Doxepin
C) Paroxetine
D) Phenelzine
E) Lithium

Ans: C

41: Which of the following drugs inhibits reuptake of NE and serotonin into presynaptic nerve terminals?A) Amitriptyline
B) Diazepam
C) Paroxetine
D) Phenelzine
E) Lithium

Ans: A

42: Which of the following drugs Increases monoamine (NE, serotonin, and dopamine) stores within the neurons and subsequent release of excess neurotransmitters into the synapse?
A) Amitriptyline
B) Diazepam
C) Paroxetine
D) Phenelzine
E) Lithium

Ans: C

43: Which of the following drugs block dopamine D2 receptors?
A) Amitriptyline
B) Diazepam
C) Haloperidol
D) Phenelzine
E) Lithium

Ans: C

44: Which of the following drugs has unknown mechanism of action?
A) Amitriptyline
B) Diazepam
C) Haloperidol
D) Phenelzine
E) Lithium

Ans: E

45: Which of the following drugs block both dopamine D2 and serotonin (5HT2) receptors?
A) Amitriptyline
B) Diazepam
C) Haloperidol
D) Risperidone
E) Lithium

Ans: D

46: Which of the following drugs inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase of cardiac cell membranes resulting
in increase Na+ concentration intracellularly?
A) Quinidine
B) Digoxin
C) Digitoxin
D) Sotalol
E) Both B and C

Ans: E

47: Which of the following drugs is Na+ channel blockers which can either slow phase 0 depolarization or shorten phase 3 repolarization of cardiac muscle cells?
A) Quinidine
B) Digoxin
C) Digitoxin
D) Sotalol
E) Propanolol

Ans: A

48: Which of the following drugs is β-Adrenoreceptor blockers which can decrease phase 4 cardiac depolarization?A) Quinidine
B) Digoxin
C) Digitoxin
D) Sotalol
E) Propanolol

Ans: E

49: Which of the following drugs is K+ channel blockers causing a prolongation of phase 3 repolarization?A) Quinidine
B) Digoxin
C) Digitoxin
D) Sotalol
E) Propanolol

Ans: D

50: Which of the following drugs block calcium channels resulting in a shorten action potential?
A) Quinidine
B) Digoxin
C) Digitoxin
D) Sotalol
E) Verapamil

Ans: E

51: Sulfonamide loop diuretic inhibits which co-transporter of the thick ascending loop of Henle?
A) Na+/K+/2Cl− double cotransporter
B) Na+/K+/2Cl− triple cotransporter
C) Na+/K+/2Cl− single cotransporter
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Ans: B



52: Thiazide Diuretics inhibits Na+/Cl− reabsorption in which part of Nephron?
A) Proximal Convoluted Tubules
B) Descending Loop of Henle
C) Ascending Loop of Henle
D) Distal Convoluted Tubules
E) Collecting Ducts

Ans: D

53: Which one of the following drugs lowers cardiac output by decreasing sympathetic outflow from the CNS and inhibits the release of renin from the kidney?
A) Prazosin
B) Oxazosin
C) Propanolol
D) Captopril
E) Losartan

Ans: C

54: Which one of the following drugs is competitive α1-adrenergic receptor blocker which causes a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance?
A) Propanolol
B) Prazosin
C) Atenolol
D) Lisinopril
E) Losartan

Ans: B

55: Which one of the following drugs blocks angiotensin converting enzyme resulting in the decrease in conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II?
A) Propanolol
B) Metoprolol
C) Prazosin
D) Losartan
E) Captopril

Ans: E

56: Calcium Channel Blockers block which type of Calcium Channels?
A) P-Type
B) N-Type
C) L-Type
D) R-Type
E) T-Type

Ans: C

57: Nitric oxide release in smooth muscle cells cause an increase in which one of the followings?
A) cAMP
B) cGMP
C) c-di-GMP
D) cADPR
E) ATP

Ans: B

58: Heparin binds and activates which one of the followings?
A) Antithrombin I
B) Antithrombin II
C) Antithrombin III
D) Antithrombin IV
E) None of the above

Ans: C

59: Which one of the following drugs inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors?
A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Verapamil
D) Nitroglycerine
E) Lovastatin

Ans: B

60: Which one of the following drugs competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase?
A) Lovastatin
B) Fluvastatin
C) Warfarin
D) Heparin
E) Both A and B

Ans: E

61: Which one of the following drugs inhibits synthesis of bacterial cell wall phospholipids by binding D-ala and D-ala portion of cell wall precursors?
A) Aztreonam
B) Imipenem
C) Vancomycine
D) Cephalosporine
E) Ticarcillin

Ans: C

 



62:  Which one of the following drugs causes Red Man Syndrome?
A) Aztreonam
B) Imipenem
C) Vancomycine
D) Cephalosporine
E) Ticarcillin

Ans: C

63: Which one of the following drugs works at 50S ribosomal subunit by preventing peptide formation?
A) Aztreonam
B) Imipenem
C) Vancomycine
D) Cephalosporine
E) Clindamycin

Ans: E

64: Which one of the following drugs causes Pseudomembranous colitis?
A) Aztreonam
B) Imipenem
C) Vancomycine
D) Cephalosporine
E) Clindamycin

Ans: E

65:  Which one of the following drugs binds to 30S ribosomal subunit and blocks access of tRNA
inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis?
A) Clindamycin
B) Tetracycline
C) Vancomycine
D) Cephalosporine
E) Imipenem

Ans: B

66: Which one of the following drugs should be avoided to be taken with milk antacids or iron containing compounds because divalent cations inhibit its absorption in the gut?
A) Clindamycin
B) Tetracycline
C) Vancomycine
D) Cephalosporine
E) Imipenem

Ans: B

67: Which one of the following drugs binds to 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits the translocation
steps of protein synthesis?
A) Azithromycin,
B) Tetracycline
C) Vancomycine
D) Cephalosporine
E) Imipenem

Ans: A

68: Which one of the following drugs binds to separated 30S ribosomal subunit interfering with assembly of functional ribosomal apparatus?
A) Azithromycin,
B) Tetracycline
C) Amikacin
D) Cephalosporine
E) Imipenem

Ans: C

69: Which one of the following drugs requires O2 for uptake?
A) Azithromycin,
B) Tetracycline
C) Amikacin
D) Cephalosporine
E) Imipenem

Ans: C

70: Which one of the following drugs Inhibits DNA gyrase (Topoisomerase II) ?
A) Azithromycin,
B) Tetracycline
C) Amikacin
D) Ciprofloxacin
E) Imipenem

Ans: D



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